Decide whether the series are absolutely convergent, conditionally convergent, or divergent.
$$a) \sum _{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{(\log n)^{\log n}}{n^a} , a>0$$
$$b) \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {(-1)^{[\log n]}}{n}$$ where [ ] is greatest integer symbol.
My attempt : the easiest way to think about this problem is the Leibniz test both $a)$ and $b)$ will be conditionally convergents.
Is it correct ?
any hints/solutions
thanks u
For the first one we have that
$$\frac{(\log n)^{\log n}}{n^a}\to \infty$$
indeed by $x=e^y \to \infty$ as $y\ge e^{2a}$
$$\frac{(\log x)^{\log x}}{x^a}=\frac{y^y}{e^{ay}}\ge\frac{e^{2ay}}{e^{ay}}=e^{ay}\to \infty$$
therefore the given series diverges.
For the second one we can write
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {(-1)^{[\log n]}}{n}=\sum_{n=1}^{1} \frac {1}{n}-\sum_{n=2}^{2} \frac {1}{n}+\sum_{n=3}^{7} \frac {1}{n}-\sum_{n=8}^{20} \frac {1}{n}+\ldots+(-1)^{k+1}\sum_{n=[e^k]}^{[e^{k+1}-1]} \frac {1}{n}+\ldots =\sum_{k=1}^\infty (-1)^{k+1} a_k$$
that is an alternating sum of terms not convergent to zero and thus it diverges too, indeed as $k\to \infty$ by harmonic series
$$a_k=\sum_{n=[e^k]}^{[e^{k+1}-1]} \frac {1}{n}\sim \log (e^{k+1})-\log(e^k)=k+1-k=1$$