Is it correct that if $\psi \ : G \rtimes_{\phi_1} H \to G \rtimes_{\phi_2} H$, then $\exists f \in Aut(G)\ and \ g \in Aut(H)$, such that $\psi(G \rtimes_{\phi_1} H) \cong f(G) \times g(H)$
What about when $\psi$ is $\in Aut(G \rtimes H)$?
2026-03-29 08:35:24.1774773324
Decomposition of Homomorphism
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