Let $p,q \ge 1$ be two integers and $\mathfrak{S}_{p+q}$ the symmetric group of $\{1, \dots, p, p+1, \dots, p+q\}$. Denote:
- by $\Gamma_{p,q}$ the subgroup of permutations $\alpha \in \mathfrak{S}_{p+q}$ such that $\alpha(i)=i$ for all $i \in \{1, \dots, p\}$
- by $\Delta_{p,q}$ the subgroup of permutations $\beta \in \mathfrak{S}_{p+q}$ such that $\beta(j)=j$ for all $j \in \{p+1, \dots, p+q\}$
- and by $\mathcal{S}_{p,q}$ the set of permutations $\sigma \in \mathfrak{S}_{p+q}$ such that $\sigma(1) \lt \sigma(2) \lt \dots \lt \sigma(p)$ and $\sigma(p+1) \lt \sigma(p+2) \lt \dots \lt \sigma(p+q)$
I'm trying to prove that any $s \in \mathfrak{S}_{p+q}$ can be written in a unique way as $$s = \sigma \circ \alpha \circ \beta$$ where $\sigma \in \mathcal{S}_{p,q}$, $\alpha \in \Gamma_{p,q}$ and $\beta \in \Delta_{p,q}$.
I first tried to use a mockup with $p=2$, $q = 3$ and the permutation: $$s=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5\\ 4 & 2 & 5 & 1 & 3\end{pmatrix}$$ but I'm not able to get substantial things.
Thanks for your ideas!
Note: the topic is coming from the definition of the wedge product in exterior algebra.
I finally found a proof for the result of the question.
For any $s \in \mathfrak{S}_{p+q}$, let:
Then define:
One can verify that:
Let's now prove the uniqueness of the writing.
Suppose that
$$s = \sigma_1 \circ \alpha_1 \circ \beta_1 = \sigma_2 \circ \alpha_2 \circ \beta_2.$$
We have $\sigma_2 = \sigma_1 \circ \alpha \circ \beta$ with $\sigma_1, \sigma_2 \in \mathcal{S}_{p,q}$, $\alpha \in \Gamma_{p,q}$, $\beta \in \Delta_{p,q}$ and need to prove that $\alpha = \beta = \mathrm{id}$.
If $\beta \neq \mathrm{id}$, it exists $i\lt j \in \{1, \dots,p\}$ with $\beta(j) \lt \beta(i)$.
But then $$\sigma_2(j) = \sigma_1 \circ \beta(j) = \sigma_1(\beta(j)) \lt \sigma_1(\beta(i)) = \sigma_1 \circ \beta(i) = \sigma_2(i)$$ in contradiction with $\sigma_2 \in \mathcal{S}_{p,q}$. We can prove that $\alpha = \mathrm{id}$ with a similar argument. Finally $\alpha = \beta = \mathrm{id}$, which means $\alpha_1 = \alpha_2$ and $\beta_1 = \beta_2$ and therefore $\sigma_1 = \sigma_2$.