Define $$g(n) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx |h(x)|^{n} e^{-f(x)}.$$
For $n\geq 2$, must $g(n)$ be sandwiched between $g(n-1)$ and $g(n+1)$?
That is, for each $n \geq 2$, must we have at least one of $g(n-1) \leq g(n) \leq g(n+1)$ or $g(n+1) \leq g(n) \leq g(n-1)$, where the choice of the two inequalities is allowed to be $n$ dependent?
This seems to be nontrivial, since there's no natural order relation between $g(n)$ and $g(n+1)$. I'm also unsure if Jensen's inequality would be useful in the cases where $e^{-f(x)}$ is integrable and hence provides a probability measure via $\frac{e^{-f(x)}}{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dy e^{-f(y)}}$; then one knows $\langle |h(x)|^{n+1}\rangle^{\frac{n}{n+1}} \geq \langle |h(x)|^{n}\rangle$ according to that probability measure; but the relation to $g(n)$ is obscured.
The motivation for this question is to try to answer another, Can a convergent perturbation series converge to the wrong answer for this type of integral?, as it would allow one to use the convergence of the there-defined $S(g)$ to show the convergence of $J(g)$.
Consider $f(x)=0$ and $$h(x)=0.9999 \cdot 1_{[1,10^5]} + 1.001 \cdot 1_{[0, 10^{-5}]}.$$ The first couple of iterations the integral will drop, but finally it will go to infinity (just from the second indicator function). We have $$g(n)= (0.9999)^n (10^5-1) + (1.001)^n 10^{-5}.$$
So, no, it is in general not true.