I need help computing the value of the following definite improper integral: $$\int_0^\infty \frac{x dx}{(1+x^2)(1+e^{\pi x})}=\text{?}$$ Here are my thoughts and attempts:
- I tried using the Laplace Transform identity for definite integrals, with no luck (since I can only compute the Laplace Transform of $\frac{1}{e^{\pi x}+1}$ in terms of the digamma function... yuck)
- I can't use the residue theorem, since the integral is from $0$ to $\infty$ and the integrand is not an even function
- I would like to expand $\frac{x}{1+x^2}=\frac{1/x}{1-(-1/x^2)}$ as a geometric series, but it wouldn't always converge since $x$ goes from $0$ to $\infty$
CONTEXT: The integral came up in Jack D'Aurizio's answer to this question.
Any ideas?
We use the formula (valid for $\Re (z) > 0$): $$\psi(z) = \ln z - \frac{1}{2z} - 2 \int_0^\infty \frac{x}{(x^2+1)(e^{2\pi xz}-1)} dx$$ which $\psi(z)$ is the digamma function, this follows from differentiating Binet's second formula.
Since $$\int_0^\infty \frac{x dx}{(1+x^2)(1+e^{\pi x})} = \int_0^\infty \frac{x dx}{(1+x^2)(e^{\pi x}-1)} - 2\int_0^\infty \frac{x dx}{(1+x^2)(e^{2\pi x}-1)}$$
applying the formula gives the result: $$\int_0^\infty \frac{x dx}{(1+x^2)(1+e^{\pi x})} = \frac{\ln 2 - \gamma}{2}$$