I have been struggling for a while on evaluating this definite infinite product integral:
$$\int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^0(1+\tan{x})(1+\tan^2x)(1+\tan^4x)(1+\tan^8x)(1+\tan^{16}x)...dx$$
This is a question given by my maths teacher a while back and I have been struggling with it ever since. I have tried so many different substitutions and I have even tried integrating by parts (do NOT do this), but nothing has led me even close to an answer. I'm guessing there is trig identity I must be missing in order to simplify the inside of the integral? or some wonder substitution?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Here's a short method that uses a trigonometric substitution. Substituting $u = \tan \theta$, so that $d\theta = \frac{du}{1 + u^2}$, transforms the integral to $$\int_{-1}^0 \frac{(1 + u) (1 + u^2) (1 + u^4) \cdots}{1 + u^2} \,du .$$ Verify that (for $u \in (-1, 0]$), $$(1 + u) (1 + u^2) (1 + u^4) \cdots = 1 + u + u^2 + u^3 + \cdots = \frac{1}{1 - u} ,$$ and substituting realizes the integrand explicitly as a rational function.