I put the following integral into wolfram alpha to solve as a part of a larger project I'm working and got this very curious result
$ \int_{0}^{2\pi} \cos{(A \cos{(y - x)}}) dx = 2\pi J_0(A)$ for real A
Why is this true? Why does a Bessel function pop up here? The factor of $2\pi$ suggests some contour integration going on here but I'm having trouble seeing it
EDIT: missing a bracket should be cos(y-x) not cosy - x
I suspect a typo somewhere.
Let $$A \cos(y)-x=t\implies x=-t -A \cos(y)\implies dx=-dt$$ making $$\int \cos{(A \cos{y - x}})\, dx = -\int \cos(t) \,dt=\sin(t) +C$$ What is true is $$\int_{0}^{2\pi} \cos{(A \cos{y - x}})\, d\color{red}{y} = 2 \pi \cos (x) J_0(|A|)$$