An IVP of the form
\begin{align} x'=p(t)x+q(t) \hspace{.25em}; \hspace{.5em}x(t_0)=x_0 \end{align}
has a general solution as follows
\begin{align} \displaystyle x(t)=e^{\int_{t_0}^{t}p(\tau)d\tau}x_0+e^{\int_{t_0}^{t}p(\tau)d\tau}\int_{t_0}^te^{-\int_{t_0}^{s}p(\tau)d\tau}q(s)ds \end{align} I can easily reach this conclusion but only with indefinite integrals because the integration constant yields the first term after the equal sign; however, the above solution was presented to me and I am not sure where the definite integrals came from, any thoughts?
Let $f:A\rightarrow B$ be an integrable function, with the anti derivative being $F.$ Let $x_0\in A$ and $c\in B$.
You can write an indefinite integral say $$\int f(x) dx=F(x)+c$$ as something definite like $$\int_{x_0}^{x}f(\alpha)d\alpha=F(x)-F(x_0).$$ Now you could choose $c=-F(x_0)$. So they are essentially the same thing.
We can solve your problem using the integration factor $$e^{-\int_{t_0}^{t}p(\alpha) d\alpha}.$$