While reading a paper I encountered the following:
Let $(\mathbf{q,p}) \in \mathbb{R}^{2n}$ be canonical coordinates and let $H: \mathbb{R}^{2n} \to \mathbb{R}$ be a smooth function.
The continuous-time Hamiltonian system
$\mathbf{q}_t = + \nabla_p H(q, p)$
$\mathbf{p}_t = - \nabla_q H(q, p)$
preserves exactly the symplectic form $\mathbf{\omega = dp \wedge dq}$, that is $(d/dt)\omega = 0$
Here $\mathbf{p} , \mathbf{q} \in \mathbb{R}^n$
How is $(d/dt)\omega $ even defined? I have seen exterior derivatives of differential forms, but this is evidently something else.
Also, how can we prove that (for the given Hamiltonian system) $(d/dt)\omega = 0$?
Any help will be greatly appreciated.
$\def\L{\mathcal L}$From what you've written there is no dependence of the Hamiltonian on time (indeed a time variable is not introduced at all), so the interpretation in the comments doesn't feel right. Without more context, I would assume that by $(d/dt)\omega$ the author means the Lie derivative $\L_X \omega$ where
$$X = \sum_j \left(\nabla_{p_j} H \frac{\partial}{\partial q^j}-\nabla_{q^j} H \frac{\partial}{\partial p_j}\right)$$ is the Hamiltonian vector field, whose flow gives the time evolution of the system (thus the notation $d/dt$).