I am reading this introduction to Mechanics and the definition it gives (just after Proposition 1.1.2) for an affine subspace puzzles me.
I cite:
A subset $B$ of a $\mathbb{R}$-affine space $A$ modelled on $V$ is an affine subspace if there is a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the property that $y−x \in U$ for every $x,y \in B$
It later says that this definition is equivalent to to the usual one, namely that of closeness under sum with elements of a $U$, but it seems to me that there is a problem with the first definition. Just imagine the usual $\mathbb{R}^2$ plane as an affine space modeled on $\mathbb{R}^2$. According to this definition the subset $\{(0,0);(0,1)\}$ is an affine subspace, while this is not so according to the usual definition of an affine subspace. Is there an error in the book?
The definition you cite is incorrect (so yes, there is an error). Indeed, letting $U = V$ every subset is an affine subspace according to this definition.