Let's say I have a dirac delta function:
$$\delta(x) = \begin{cases}\infty & x = 0 \\ 0 & x \ne 0\end{cases}$$
according to wikipedia, the Dirac delta function has the following property:
$$\delta(ax) = \frac{\delta(x)}{|a|}$$
(see, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirac_delta_function#Scaling_and_symmetry)
So I attempt to prove that this property is true:
$$I = \int \limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} \delta(ax)~dx$$
let $u = ax$
$$du = a~ dx$$
$$dx = \frac{1}{a} du$$
integral becomes:
$$I = \int \limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{a}\delta(u)~du$$
$$I = \frac{1}{a}$$
therefore:
$$\delta(ax) = \frac{1}{a}$$
My question is this, where does the absolute value comes from on the Wikipedia version of the property?
Example, I get this:
$$\delta(ax) = \frac{1}{a}$$
Wikipedia says this:
$$\delta(ax) = \frac{\delta(x)}{|a|}$$
The delta function is clearly even, since for any $x \neq 0$, $\delta(x) = \delta(-x) = 0$. Since the delta function is even, we have that $\delta(ax) = \delta(-ax) = \delta(\vert a \vert x)$. Then, consider: \begin{align*} &\int \delta(\vert a \vert x)d(\vert a \vert x) = \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \text{(Let $u = \vert a \vert x$, so $du = \vert a \vert dx$)} \\ = &\int \delta(u)du = 1 = \int \delta(x)dx \\ &\int \delta(\vert a \vert x)d(\vert a \vert x) = \int \delta(x)dx \\ &\int \delta(\vert a \vert x)dx = \frac{1}{\vert a \vert}\int \delta(x)dx \end{align*} By the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus: \begin{align*} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dx}}\int \delta(\vert a \vert x)dx &= \frac{1}{\vert a \vert}\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{dx}}\int \delta(x)dx \\ \delta(\vert a \vert x) &= \frac{1}{\vert a \vert}\delta(x) \\ \delta(ax) &= \frac{1}{\vert a \vert}\delta(x) \end{align*}