Problem
Denote $$f(x)=\int_x^{x+1}\cos t^2 {\rm d}t.$$Prove $\lim\limits_{x \to +\infty}f(x)=0.$
Proof
Assume $x>0$. Making a substitution $t=\sqrt{u}$,we have ${\rm d}t=\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{u}}{\rm d}u.$ Therefore, \begin{align*} f(x)&=\int_x^{x+1}\cos t^2 {\rm d}t\\ &=\int_{x^2}^{(x+1)^2} \frac{\cos u}{2\sqrt{u}}{\rm d}u\\ &=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{\xi}}\int_{x^2}^{(x+1)^2}\cos u{\rm d}u\\ &=\frac{\sin(x+1)^2-\sin x^2}{2\sqrt{\xi}}, \end{align*} where $x^2 \leq \xi\leq (x+1)^2$. Further, $$0\leq |f(x)|\leq \frac{|\sin(x+1)^2|+|\sin x^2|}{2\sqrt{\xi}}\leq \frac{1}{\sqrt{\xi}}\leq \frac{1}{x}\to 0(x \to +\infty),$$ which implies $f(x)\to 0(x \to +\infty)$, according to the squeeze theorem.
Alternative solution:
Denote $$g(x)=\int_x^\infty \cos t^2dt\ (x>0),$$ we can actually prove this definition is valid (integral converges) using substitution $t^2=u$ and Dirichlet's test.
According to the definition of improper integral: $$\lim_{y\to\infty}\int_x^y\cos t^2dt=\int_x^\infty\cos t^2dt,$$ we can deduce $$\lim_{x\to\infty}g(x)=\int_a^\infty\cos t^2dt-\lim_{x\to\infty}\int_a^x\cos t^2dt=\int_a^\infty\cos t^2dt-\int_a^\infty\cos t^2dt=0.$$ Therefore $\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=\lim_{x\to\infty}g(x+1)-g(x)=0$.