Consider the following function:
$$f(x,t) = \left\{\begin{array}{ll} 1 & x \in [0, t] \\ 0 & x \not\in [0,t] \end{array}\right.$$
What can I say about the derivative of $f$ with respect to $t$ using the distribution theory? Is it true that
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial t} = \delta(x - t)$$
where $\delta$ is the Dirac Delta ?
In general, given a set $E(t) \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ and the function
$$f(x,t) = \left\{\begin{array}{ll} 1 & x \in E(t) \\ 0 & x \not\in E(t) \end{array}\right.$$
what can I say about the derivative of $f$ with respect to $t$?
For a sufficiently nice test function $\phi$ (say, smooth with bounded support), you can say that $$ \int \partial_t f(x,t)\phi(t)dt =-\int \phi'(t)f(x,t)dt=-\int_{x}^{\infty}\phi'(t)dt=\phi'(x)=\int\phi'(t)\delta(t-x)dt\\=\int \left(-\delta'(t-x)\right)\phi(t)dt $$ for any $x\ge 0$, and of course $f(x,t)=0$ for $x<0$. So in the sense of distributions, $\partial_t f(x,t)=-\delta'(t-x)\theta(x)$.