I am reviewing the product theorem of continuity. Here is the theorem
Let $f$ and $g$ be continuous at $x_{0}$ belonging to the intersection of the domians of $f$ and $g$. Then, I'm to prove that $fg$ is continuous at $x_{0}$, where $$(fg)(x)=f(x)g(x)\;\; \forall \;x\,\in D(f)\cap D(g).$$
Here's a part of my proof!
Since $f$ is continuous at $x_{0}$, then for any $\epsilon>0$ there exists a $\delta_1>0$ such that
$$|f(x)-f(x_0)|<\epsilon\;\; \text{whenever} \;\;|x-x_0|<\delta_1.\qquad\qquad (1)$$
Also, since $g$ is continuous at $x_{0}$, then for any $\epsilon>0$ there exists a $\delta_2>0$ such that
$$|g(x)-g(x_0)|<\epsilon\;\; \text{whenever} \;\;|x-x_0|<\delta_2.\qquad\qquad (2)$$
Now,
$$|(fg)(x)-(fg)(x_0)|\leq |g(x)[f(x)-f(x_0)]| +|f(x_0)[g(x)-g(x_0)]|$$ $$\leq |g(x)|\cdot|f(x)-f(x_0)| +|f(x_0)|\cdot|g(x)-g(x_0)| .$$
My question is: How did the author modify $(1)$ and $(2)$ to give
$$|f(x)-f(x_0)|<\dfrac{\epsilon}{2(|g(x_0)|+\epsilon+1)}\;\; \forall\;x:\;|x-x_0|<\delta_1,$$
and
$$|g(x)-g(x_0)|<\dfrac{\epsilon}{2(|f(x_0)|+\epsilon+1)}\;\; \forall\;x:\;|x-x_0|<\delta_2?$$.
Any help on this will be highly appreciated!
There is no modification.
For any given $\epsilon$, just treat $\dfrac{\epsilon}{2(|g(x_0)|+\epsilon+1)}$ as a new $\epsilon$ and "update" your $\delta$ choices accordingly.