I was going through this wikipedia article on standard error. I could not understand the crucial step here. It goes like this:
This formula may be derived from what we know about the variance of a sum of independent random variables.
If $X_1, X_2 , \ldots, X_n$ are n independent observations from a population that has a mean $\mu$ and standard deviation $\sigma$ , then the variance of the total
$T = (X_1 + X_2 + \cdots + X_n)$ is $n\sigma^2$. Understood.
The variance of T/n must be $\frac{1}{n^2}n\sigma^2=\frac{\sigma^2}{n}$. Not understood.
And the standard deviation of T/n must be $\sigma/{\sqrt{n}}$ . Of course, T/n is the sample mean $\bar{x}$ .
I went to some basics:
$\displaystyle Var(X)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}({x_i-\mu})^2$
$\displaystyle Var(X)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}({x_i^2+\mu^2-2x_i\mu})$
$\displaystyle Var(X)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2+\mu^2-\frac{2}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i\mu$
As Sample mean is an unbiased estimate of population mean, we get
$\displaystyle Var(X)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i^2-\mu^2$
$\displaystyle Var(X)=E(X^2)-(E(X))^2$
Nothing useful found from this.
Why is there a $1/n^2$ in that step to get variance ?
Let $Y$ be any random variable. Let $Z = Y/n$. Then $$Z^2 = \frac1{n^2} Y^2,$$ $$E(Z^2) = E\left(\frac1{n^2} Y^2\right) = \frac1{n^2} E(Y^2)$$ and therefore $$E\left(\left(\frac Yn\right)^2\right) = \frac1{n^2} E(Y^2).$$ Also, $$E(Z) = E\left(\frac1n Y\right) = \frac1n E(Y).$$ So from $Var(Y)=E(Y^2)-(E(Y))^2$ and $Var(Z)=E(Z^2)-(E(Z))^2,$ we find $$\begin{eqnarray} Var\left(\frac Yn\right) = Var(Z) &=& E(Z^2)-(E(Z))^2\\ &=& \frac1{n^2} E(Y^2) - \left(\frac1n E(Y)\right)^2 \\ &=& \frac1{n^2} \left(E(Y^2) - \left( E(Y)\right)^2 \right) \\ &=& \frac1{n^2} Var(Y). \end{eqnarray}$$ Now consider the case where $Y = T$.