Assume $A$ is a matrix from $R^{n\times n}$, $A:R^n\rightarrow R^n$. Then $A$ induces a projective transformation $f:RP^{n-1}\rightarrow RP^{n-1}$. For example, $\\$
$$\begin{pmatrix} 4 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 3 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 2 \end{pmatrix}\cdot\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ x \\ y \end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix} 4 \\ 3x \\ 2y \end{pmatrix} \sim \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 3x/4\\ y/2 \end{pmatrix} $$ So $f$, induced by $diag(4\quad 3\quad 2)$, sends $(1\quad x\quad y)^T$ to $(1\quad 3x/4 \quad y/2)^T$. Similarly it sends $(0\quad 1\quad y)^T$ to $(0 \quad 1\quad 2y/3)^T$. The question is, how to define the derivative of such a transformation? I think addition is not well-defined in projective space?
Background:
(i) I need to compute $\int \delta(x-f(x))g(x)dx$, where $\delta$ is the Dirac Delta distribution. I find from Wikipedia that it equals to $\sum_{f(x)=x}\dfrac{g(x)}{|det(I-Df(x))|}$.
(ii) I also find an equation saying, $det(I-Df(x))=1-\dfrac{det A}{\lambda^2}$, where $\lambda$ is the top eigenvalue, x the top eigenvector. I can only prove it in $2\times2$ case when it is easy to define such a derivative.
It is true that addition is not well defined in projective space. You need to look into smooth manifolds. These are spaces (such as projective space) where it makes sense of looking at derivatives.