I am taking a class about theory of elasticity. Therefore we cover some PDEs.
There is one exercise that puzzles my mind. We shall derive the weak/variational formulation from the following DE:
$\begin{align}-(a(x)u'(x)))' + b(x)u(x) &= f(x) \qquad x \in (0,l) \\ \alpha u'(0) - \beta u(0) &= 0 \\ \gamma u'(l) +\delta u(l) &= 0\end{align}$
but we shall do it from the integral form:
$a(x)u'(x) - a(0)u'(0) + \int_0^x (f(s) -b(s)u(s))ds = 0$
I really have no idea how to do that. Normally I would just multiply with some test function $v \in V$, integrate and then do partial integration.
But here ?! No idea.
I would be so thankful for any help.
EDIT: It seems that my question is misunderstood. I try it once again.
Given: $-\int_0^x(a(s)u'(s))'ds + \int_0^x f(s)ds + \int_0^x b(s)u(s)ds = 0$ how can I derive the weak formulation?
we look for a weak solution $u\in H^1(0, \ell)$ satisfying the integral identity (weak formulation of the problem) $$\int_0^\ell u\bigg(-(a\phi')'+b\phi\bigg)dx=\int_0^\ell f\phi dx$$(obtained by twice integration by parts on the first term of the equation) for all $\phi\in C_0^\infty(0, \ell)$ and by density $$\int_0^\ell u\bigg(-(a\phi')'+b\phi\bigg)dx=\int_0^\ell f\phi dx$$ for all $\phi\in H_0^1(0, \ell)$.