I have been giving the following BVP:
$$\begin{cases} -u''(t) + a(t)u(t) = f(t)\\ u(0) = u(1) = 0\end{cases}$$
and I am asked to turn it into a Fredholm integral equation of the second kind.
Following the answer on this question, I started by writing
$$\phi(t) = u''(t)$$
and then I wrote
$$u'(s) = u'(0) + \int_0^s u''(w) dw = u'(0) + \int_0^s \phi(w)dw$$
which then led to
$$u(t) = u(0) + \int_0^t u'(s)ds = \cdots = \int_0^t (t-w)\phi(w)dw$$
So I was able to rewrite the differential equation as
$$\phi(t) = -f(t) + \int_0^t a(t)(t-w)\phi(w)dw$$
but this doesn't look like a F.I.E. of the second kind because the upper bound of the integral isn't fixed... I am right in assuming that the upper bound of the integral must be fixed? If it must be, how should I do it? I only need a pointer in the right direction as I have never seen this done, but I do believe I can finish the calculations alone.
Thanks for your time.
The problem is that if you want to convert a given boundary value problem to a Fredholm integral equation, then the kernel mostly would be piecewise-defined; this is somewhat the reason why the "Volterra approach" doesn't seem to work. The standard procedure is as follows: