Suppose $A$ is $n\times n$ and $P^{-1}AP = D$ for some invertible $P$. Does $\det(A) = \det(D)$?
I'm pretty sure the answer is yes (just naively guessing and checking), but I don't know how to prove it.
Suppose $A$ is $n\times n$ and $P^{-1}AP = D$ for some invertible $P$. Does $\det(A) = \det(D)$?
I'm pretty sure the answer is yes (just naively guessing and checking), but I don't know how to prove it.
det has the following property: $$\det(AB) = \det(A)\det(B)$$ So $$\det(D) = \det(P^{-1}AP) = \det(P^{-1})\det(A)\det(P) = (\det(P))^{-1}\det(A)\det(P) = \det(A)$$
$$1 = \det(\textrm{Id}) = \det(P^{-1}P) = \det(P^{-1})\det(P)$$
and so
$$\frac{1}{\det(P)} = \det(P^{-1})$$