I have a question here which says:
"If det$(A)\neq0,$then $Ax=x$ has a unique solution."
The $x$ on the right side isn't a typo. It's not supposed to be $b.$
I am supposed to show that this is true or false. If it's true, I have to explain why and if it's false, I have to explain why it's false.
I'm not really sure how to go about "proving" this.
I do notice that $Ax-x=0$ and thus $x(A-I)=0$. However, I can't really see where to go from there.
It's clearly false. Take
$A = I; \tag 1$
then
$\det(A) = 1 \ne 0, \tag 2$
but
$\forall x, \; Ax = Ix = x; \tag 3$
the solution to
$Ax = x \tag 4$
is certainly not unique!
This example shows that the proposed hypothetical is not true, but why? I think the most concise reason I can give is that $\det(A) \ne 0$ does not preclude $\det (A - I) = 0$; if
$\det(A - I) \ne 0, \tag 5$
then
$(A - I)x = 0 \tag 6$
has the unique solution $0$; but when $\det(A - I)$ vanishes, in general we will have
$\ker (A - I) \ne \{0\}; \tag 7$
indeed, $\dim(\ker(A - I))$ may be as great as $\text{size}(A)$, as the above example indicates.