I am trying to solve the following integral equation in order to show that the point P on the diagram below is a focus.
$$N = \tfrac{1}{R^2} \int_0^{2\pi} q^2 \cos \phi \,{\rm d}\phi$$
The polar equation for the ellipse in terms of $q$ and $\phi$ is:
$$\left(\frac{q}{R}sin\phi\right)^2 + \left(\frac{q}{R}cos\phi - \frac{b}{R}\right)^2sin^2\beta = 1$$
I would like the solution for the constant "b".
I am hoping that if this can be solved that I can then solve the situation for P' in the diagram which is not a focus of the ellipse. In this case b in the ellipse polar equation would be replaced by b'. Ultimately I am trying to solve for b'. If the solution for b' is in terms of b that is great. If necessary, the assumption that $b' = b/A$, where $A <= 1$ is probably okay.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: For the case where we are looking at P (which is a focal point of the ellipse), the following is true:
$$N = 2\pi\cot \beta = \frac{1}{R^2} \int_0^{2\pi} q^2 \cos \phi \,{\rm d}\phi$$
The above equation is really a momentum balance in the "x" direction for a 100% elastic collision (no energy losses at impingement) of a jet impinging against a surface or another equal jet. From a paper, which states that the integral equation and polar equation were used to solve for $b$ but provides no details whatsoever, the solution for b is:
$$b = R\cot\beta$$
What I am trying to do is to solve for $b'$ when the problem instead involves P'. For P', this is a case where the momentum equation is for an impingement that is not 100% elastic (i.e. there is a loss of energy at impingement). The derived equation for this case is as follows:
$$N = \frac{2\pi\cot \beta}{A} = \frac{1}{R^2} \int_0^{2\pi} q'^2 \cos \kappa \,{\rm d}\kappa$$
"$A$" is constant for a specific value of $\theta$. For a 100% elastic collision $A$ is equal to 1 and in that case, $b' = b$, but not if $A < 1$.
My thinking is that if a solution for $b$ can be obtained from the integral for the case where P is a focus by directly solving the integral, then it might be possible to extend it to the case for P'. I suspect that the solution for $b'$ for the P' case is:
$$b' = \frac{R\cot\beta}{A}$$
Perhaps there is a better way to achieve what I am looking for rather than trying to directly solve the integral. It can be assumed that $b = R\cot\beta$ is correct and maybe use this to come up with $b'$, without trying to directly solve the integral.

$$r(\theta)=\frac{b^2}{a-c\cos \theta}$$
$$c=\sqrt{a^2-b^2}$$
Area swept \begin{align} A(\theta) &= \frac{1}{2} \int_0^\theta r^2 d\theta \tag{$0 \le \theta \le 2\pi$} \\[4pt] &= ab\cot^{-1} \left( \sqrt{\frac{a-c}{a+c}} \cot \frac{\theta}{2} \right)+\frac{b^2c\sin \theta}{2(a-c\cos \theta)} \end{align}
Avoiding discontinuity, takes
$$\cot^{-1} (\cdot) \equiv \frac{\pi}{2}-\tan^{-1} (\cdot)$$