Can someone please help me understand why the real roots of the polynomial
$\phi$(B) = 1 - $\frac{1}{3}B$ - $\frac{1}{2}B^2$ are
$ = \frac{-2 \pm\sqrt{76}}{6}$
Thank you in advance.
Can someone please help me understand why the real roots of the polynomial
$\phi$(B) = 1 - $\frac{1}{3}B$ - $\frac{1}{2}B^2$ are
$ = \frac{-2 \pm\sqrt{76}}{6}$
Thank you in advance.
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$\mathrm{For\:a\:quadratic\:equation\:of\:the\:form:\:}ax^2+bx+c=0\mathrm{\:the\:solutions\:are\:}$ $$x_{1,\:2}=\frac{-b\pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac}}{2a}$$
in your case, when
$$1 - \frac{1}{3}B - \frac{1}{2}B^2 =0$$
Multiply both sides by $6$ and re-arrange: $$-3B^2-2B+6=0$$
Comparing to standard formula, we get:
$$a=-3, b=-2, C=6$$
Substitute into the standard formula, you get:
$$B_{1,\:2}=\frac{-\left(-2\right)\pm \sqrt{\left(-2\right)^2-4\left(-3\right)6}}{2\left(-3\right)}$$
You could simplify to get your answer.