Let $G_0=1$ and $G_{n+1}=F_0G_n+F_1G_{n-1}+\cdots+F_nG_0$, where $F_n$ is the $n$th term of the Fibonacci sequence, i.e., $F_0=F_1=1$ and $F_{n+1}=F_n+F_{n-1}$.
Let $P_0=P_1=1,\ P_2=2,$ and $P_{n+1}=2P_n+P_{n-1}$ for $n>1$.
Is $P_n=G_n$?
Edit: set $P_2=2$, thanks to Daniel R.
Here is an inductive argument:
The base case obviously holds.
Assume that $P_k=G_k$ for all $k \le n$.
Now we want to prove that $P_{n+1} = G_{n+1}$, i.e. $P_{n+1}-G_{n+1}=0$.
$$\require{cancel} \begin{align}\\ P_{n+1}-G_{n+1} &= 2P_n+P_{n-1}-F_0G_n-F_1G_{n-1}-\dots-F_nG_0\\ &=\{\text{induction hypothesis}\}\\ &=\cancel 2G_n+\cancel{G_{n-1}}-\cancel{F_0G_n}-\cancel{F_1G_{n-1}}-F_2G_{n-2}-\dots-F_nG_0\\ &=G_n-F_2G_{n-2}-\dots-F_nG_0 \end{align}$$
So if we can prove that the last expression equals zero, we are done. And indeed,
$$\begin{align}\\ G_n &= F_0 G_{n-1}+F_1 G_{n-2} + F_2G_{n-3}\dots + F_{n-1} G_0\\ &=F_0\left(\color{red}{F_0}G_{n-2}+\color{red}{F_1}G_{n-3}\dots+\color{red}{F_{n-2}}G_0\right)+\color{blue}{F_1} G_{n-2} +\color{blue}{F_2}G_{n-3} \dots + \color{blue}{F_{n-1}} G_0\\ &=(\color{red}{F_0}+\color{blue}{F_1})G_{n-2}+(\color{red}{F_1}+\color{blue}{F_2})G_{n-3}+\dots+(\color{red}{F_{n-2}}+\color{blue}{F_{n-1}})G_0\\ &=F_2G_{n-2}+F_3G_{n-3}+\dots+F_nG_0 \end{align}$$