Let φ : Z6 -> Z2
be given by φ (x) = the remainder of x when divided by 2, as in the
division algorithm.
I know that this is the answer:
Solution:
It is a homomorphism: φ (a + b) = φ (a) + φ (b) for all
a, b in Z6.
Now, I just don't get it. First, why this solution use a + b instead of (1 + 2) when we do have numbers? such as Z6 and Z2?
Also, how do I know when to use (a + b) or (a*b)? What could be another way to do it?( I am asking this because I saw other examples using (a * b) )
What about if the question is Let φ : Z12 -> Z2 or Let φ : Z21 -> Z2 should I get the same answer with (a + b) because it is given by φ (x) = the remainder of x when divided by 2
I hope you can understand my question because everything look so confuse to me.
Thanks,
Okay, $Z_6$ and $Z_2$ are groups. We can use notation $*$ or $+$. They are just abstract notations so it doesn't matter which one we use. A group only has one binary operation no matter what we call it. For convenience and familiarity we use "+" because... well, we are doing modulo arithmetic.
You use a, b because they are variables and can stand for any numbers. If we used specific number we'd have to list every possible combination. That's 36 specific calculations. Why do that when we can use variable place holders to show all at once?
To show that $\phi$ is a homomorphism we have to show $\phi(a + b) = \phi(a) + \phi(b)$.
I'll leave it to you to figure out if $\phi:Z_{12} -> Z_2$ is a homomorphism. But I will show you that $\phi: Z_{21} -> Z_2$ is not because $\phi(17 + 4) = \phi(0) = 0$ (because 21 = 0 mod(21)) but $\phi(17) + \phi(4) = 1 + 0 = 1 \ne 0$. So it isn't a homomorphism.