Why is it that $$f(x,y)=\frac {\cos x^2}{x+y}$$ is not considered homogeneous?
2026-03-27 02:08:29.1774577309
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Determining a homogenous differential equation.
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That is not a "homogeneous function" for the reason Andre Nicolas gives. Another way of looking at it cannot be put as a function of the single variable y/x. If you divide both numerator and denominator by x you get $\frac{\frac{1}{x}cos(x^2)}{1+ \frac{y}{x}}$ and then we cannot take that "x" in the numerator into the cosine. But it is also not a differential equation! Did you mean $\frac{dy}{dx}= \frac{cos(x^2)}{x+ y}$
Because in general we do not have $$\cos\left(\frac{(tx)^2}{tx+ty}\right)=t^k\cos\left(\frac{x^2}{x+y}\right).$$
Edit: The function has been reinterpreted by an editor. The basic reason remains the same, details are slightly different.