This is a question I cannot seem to figure out (number 2).
I have tried using the Mean Value theorem, but I cant' find a way to justify there being or not being a derivative of 0 somewhere. Because the function is strictly increasing, there are no common points, so Rolle's theorem is out of the picture. Any help would be much appreciated. I think this problem is probably easy and that I'm just having a brain-fart, but I just can't wrap my head around it.