If the matrix $A^2$ is diagonalizable and $A$ is invertible, is $A$ diagonalizable? I know it is not true if we leave out the invertibility. For example if $ A= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \\ \end{pmatrix} $ (which is not diagonalizable), then $A^2= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \\ \end{pmatrix} $ (and that is trivially diagonalizable).
But what if we require $A$ to be invertible? I believe in that case, answer to my original question is yes, but I'm not able to prove that. Can someone please help me?
I'm assuming this is over the complex numbers.
Put $A$ in Jordan canonical form. The square of a nontrivial Jordan block (with non-zero diagonal) is an upper triangular matrix with nonzero diagonal and above-diagonal elements, and the eigenvalue has geometric multiplicity $1$. So if $A$ is invertible and not diagonalizable, neither is $A^2$.