Is there always a diffeomorphism between $(0,1)^2$ and any given (not degenerate) triangle?
2026-05-14 20:49:08.1778791748
Diffeomorphism between a triangle and a square?
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If by "triangle" you mean the open set bounded by three line segments (the boundaries themselves are not included), then yes, every convex open subset of the Euclidean plane is diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^2$.