The definition of antiderivative given in my book is:
Definition:A differentiable function $F$(if it exists) such that $F'=f$,then $F$ is called antiderivative of $f$
First part of fundamental theorem precisely says that if a function is continuous and defined on $[a,b]$ then integral function $\int_0^{x}f(x)dx$ is differentiable and is antiderivative of $f$.The second part of fundamental theorem of calculus says that:
Theorem: If $f:[a,b]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be bounded and Riemann integrable function and $F$ be its antiderivative then $$\int_a^{b}f(x)dx=F(b)-F(a)$$
My question is whether the antiderivative $F$ given in above theorem is necessarily integral function(+some constant) i.e $F(x)=\int_a^{x}f(x)dx+C$?,where $C$ is some constant.If it is not so then give a example of bounded and Riemann integrable function whose antiderivative exists but is not equal to integral function $\int_a^{x}f(x)dx$.
Denote $G(x) = \int_a^{x}f(x)dx$
Obviously $G(x) = F(x) - F(a)$
(this follows from the theorem)
If you now take derivatives of $F$ and $G$ you will see they are the same.
So $F$ and $G$ differ by a constant.
So the answer to your question is positive.