In my logic class, we were given the following definition for a set of sentences being consistent in first order logic:
Let $\Gamma$ be a set of sentences in some underlying language $L$. The set $\Gamma$ is inconsistent if $\Gamma \vdash \varphi$ for all $L$ sentences $\varphi$. The set $\Gamma$ is consistent if it is not inconsistent.
We were then given several equivalent definitions. In particular, we were told that
$\Gamma \cup \{\gamma\}$ is inconsistent if and only if $\Gamma \vdash \neg \gamma$.
I am trying to verify this on my own, and can easily show that if $\Gamma \vdash \neg \gamma$ then $\Gamma \cup \{\gamma\}$ is inconsistent, but I am having more trouble with the other direction. I feel like it should be relatively simple, but I do not have much experience with formal logic.
All of my attempts run into a wall where I feel like I need to prove the following: if $\Sigma \cup \{\sigma\} \vdash \neg \sigma$ then $\Sigma \vdash \neg \sigma$, which makes intuitive sense, but which I cannot formalize.
We just need to use the deduction theorem and remember some useful definitions:
Claim: If $\Gamma \cup \{\gamma\}$ is inconsistent then $\Gamma \vdash \neg \gamma$
Proof: Suppose that $\Gamma \cup \{\gamma\}$ is inconsistent. Then, by the definition of an inconsistent set above, $\Gamma \cup \{\gamma\} \vdash \varphi$ for all $L$ sentences $\varphi$. Hence, $\Gamma \cup \{\gamma\} \vdash \bot$ and, by deduction theorem, $\Gamma \vdash \gamma \to \bot$. Now, by the usual definition of $\neg$, it means that $\Gamma \vdash \neg \gamma$.
Hope this helps!