I've been trying to find my mistake for a while, but I can't seem to find one. Maybe I'm missing a hole that is present?
I tried the volume of the region bounded between $x=1$, $x=3$ and a linear function $y=x-1$, also $x = 0$ rotating that region about the $y$-axis. My first attempt was to use the Disk Method, defined as
$\begin{align}V=\displaystyle{\pi \int_{y_1}^{y_2}}(f(y))^2dy=\displaystyle{\pi \int_{0}^{2}}(y+1)^2dy=\dfrac{26}{3}\pi\end{align}$
I then attempted to solve this problem using the Shell Method and got a different answer:
$V=\displaystyle{2\pi \int_{x_1}^{x_2}xf(x)dx}=2\pi\int_{1}^{3}x(x-1)dx=\dfrac{28}{3}\pi$
I have been trying to find my mistake for a while, trying different calculators and WolframAlpha, but I can't seem to get it right, maybe I'm missing some essential concept? My apologies if my formatting doesn't look good, as this is my first question here.
I would appreciate if someone could point me to the right direction.
By disk method we have
$$V=\pi \int_{0}^{2}\left[3^2-(f(y))^2\right]dy=\pi \int_{0}^{2}(8-y^2-2y)dy=\frac{28}{3}\pi$$
Let draw a plane sketch for the volume in order to see why the other way is wrong.