In page 34 of "Differential forms in Algebraic Topology," the author states that every forms on $ \mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{R} $ is uniquely a linear combination of the following two types of forms:
$$(I) (\pi^* \phi)f(x,t), $$ $$(II) (\pi^* \phi)f(x,t)dt, $$
(The notation of wedge product is omitted) Where $ \pi$ is a projection from $ \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$ and $ \phi$ is a form on the base $ \mathbb{R}^n$
My question is, can't you represent the two types of forms the following way?
$$(I) (\prod_I dx^I)f(x,t), $$ $$(II) (\prod_I dx^I)f(x,t)dt, $$
Where $(\prod_I dx^I)$ is some combination $ dx_{i_1},dx_{i_2} ... dx_{i_n}$?
I was just wondering because I thought writing the two the second way seems more natural.
No. The first type has no $dt$ in it and the second type has $dt$ in it. In particular, if you evaluate any form of the first type on $k$ vectors, one of which is $(0,1)\in\Bbb R^n\times\Bbb R$, you always get $0$.
EDIT: Sorry I didn't read your original question carefully enough. Any form of the first variant is indeed a linear combination of forms of the second variant, as the $dx^I$ give a basis for the $k$-forms (as a module over the ring of smooth functions on $\Bbb R^n$).