I'm working on solving for $t$ in the expression $$\ln t=3\left(1-\frac{1}{t}\right)$$ and although I can easily tell by inspection and by graphing that $t=1$, I'd like to prove it more rigorously.
I got stuck trying to solve this algebraically, so I tried to take the derivative of each side with respect to $t$ to get
$$\frac{1}{t}=3\left(\frac{1}{t^{2}}\right).$$
However, this implies that $t=3$, which is incorrect.
Why can't I take the derivative of each side like this? What am I doing wrong or misunderstanding?
To answer the general question of "Why can't [one] differentiate each side [of an equation]?": Your original equation, of the form $f(t) = g(t)$, acts as a condition (i.e., is only true for some real $t$, in this case finitely many), not as an identity (true for all $t$ in some open interval).
When you differentiate a function $f$ at one point $a$, you implicitly use the values of $f$ in some neighborhood of $a$. Since your $f$ and $g$ are not equal in any open neighborhood, you can't expect differentiating to yield a new true condition.
In case an example clarifies, take $f(t) = t$ and $g(t) = 0$. The equation $t = 0$ certainly has a solution, but differentiating both sides gives $1 = 0$.
By contrast, it's safe to differentiate both sides of, e.g., $\cos(2t) = \cos^2 t - \sin^2 t$, since this equation is true for all real $t$.