Say I have equations of the form $f(x) = 1/x$ (to illustrate the simplest case of the problem) or $g(x) = \frac{1}{a - b \cdot x/c}$ and I want to find the integrals.
Normally, these would both be pretty straightforward. $\int f(x)dx = \ln(x) + C$, and $\int g(x)dx = -\frac{c}{b}\ln(a \cdot c - b \cdot x) + C$.
Suppose now, however, that $a$, $b$, $c$, and $x$ are dimensionful quantities; more specifically, $a$ has the same units as $b$ and $x$ has the same units as $c$. We would expect that $\int \frac{dx}{x}$ should be dimensionless, and indeed the $\ln$ function does have a pure number result... but the argument to $\ln$ should also be dimensionless, which $x$ is not, which leads to a problem in interpretation.
Similarly, $\int g(x)dx$ should have units of $type(x)$ over $type(a)$, which indeed it does (since we defined $x$ & $c$ to have the same units, and $a$ and $b$ to have the same units), but it also involves a non-dimensionless argument to $\ln$.
So, how can this be resolved? How does one go about integrating inverse units in a way that makes sense?
Part of the problem here is that indefinite integration does not really make much sense; it is best regarded as a notational shorthand. The meaningful quantity is a definite integral: $\int_a^b f(x) dx$. For $f(x)=1/x$, this does make dimensional sense, because as long as $a,b$ have the same sign, $\int_a^b 1/x dx = \ln(b/a)$. (If $a,b$ have opposite signs then the integral just plain fails to converge classically.)
Back in terms of $\ln(|b|)-\ln(|a|)$, this still makes sense for dimensional $a,b$, because for any two choices of units of $a,b$, the two differ by a multiplicative constant. And $\ln(cx)-\ln(cy)=\ln(c)+\ln(x)-\ln(c)-\ln(y)=\ln(x)-\ln(y)$ (assuming $c,x,y>0$ for ease of presentation). So you have invariance under change of units, which is what we should have for a dimensionless quantity.