I am reading the paper http://web.mit.edu/2.14/www/Handouts/Convolution.pdf with the goal of learning about convolutions. In the paper, the unit function is defined as $$ \delta_T (t) = \begin{cases} 0 & t \leq 0 \\ 1/T & 0 < t \leq T \\ 0 & t > 0 \end{cases} $$ and then defines the Dirac Delta function as $\delta(t) = \lim_{T \rightarrow 0} \delta_T(t)$.
What then confuses me is that he says that
An impulse occurring at $t = a$ is $\delta(t-a)$
I cannot see why this is true with the definition of the unit function above. For example if $t = a \leq T$, wouldn't $\delta(t) = 1/T$ and $\delta(t-a) = 0$? Thus, $\delta(t) \neq \delta(t-a)$ as he claims?
Wiki is using the same definition of unit function(as far as I can see) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirac_delta_function
$$ \delta_T (t-a) = \begin{cases} 0 & t-a \leq 0 \\ 1/T & 0 < t-a \leq T \\ 0 & t-a > T. \end{cases} $$
If you prefer,
$$ \delta_T (t-a) = \begin{cases} 0 & t \leq a \\ 1/T & a < t \leq a+T \\ 0 & t > a+T. \end{cases} $$