Wikipedia gives the following definition to Dirac's delta: $$\delta(x-\alpha)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{ip(x-\alpha)} dp $$
but solving the integral we get: $$\delta(x-\alpha) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \frac{1}{i(x-\alpha)} e^{ip(x-\alpha)}$$
with $p = -\infty$ and $p=\infty$ ,and for this, the integral diverges for $+\infty$ and when $x=\alpha$.
so please, can anyone enlighten me?
Thanks
This reiterates the point that the Dirac delta function is in fact a functional whose meaning only makes sense upon integration with a function $f$. The definition is that:
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\delta(x-\alpha)dx=f(\alpha)$$
for all nice enough functions $f$. For simplicity, lets take $\alpha=0$ (everything can be rederived upon shifting). One such realization of the delta function is the integral representation above, which now says:
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\delta(x)dx=\int_{-\infty}^\infty\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2\pi} f(x)e^{ipx}dpdx=\int_{-\infty}^\infty F(p)dp=\int_{-\infty}^\infty F(p)e^{-i\cdot 0 p}dp=f(0)$$
where $F$ is the fourier tranform of $f$ and the last step is the inverse Fourier transform. Technically speaking, switching integrals here is a sleight of hand because you need the conditions of Fubini-Tonelli to be satisfied, so for full rigor you can regularize the integral of $e^{ipx}$ as $e^{ipx-\epsilon p^2}$ and then carefully take $\epsilon\rightarrow 0$.