Considering a finite dimensional vector space $V$ and $k$ of its subspaces $W$ is it possible to say that
If the union of the basis of $W_1,W_2,...,W_k$ is a basis of $V$ than $W_1 \oplus W_2 \oplus ... \oplus W_k= V$
?
Can anyone give a counterexample if it is not true?
Should I consider in the hypotesis that any basis of $W_1,W_2,...,W_k$ is a basis of $V$ ? Would it work in that case?
Thanks in advice
Neither version quite does the trick, but you're close.
What we can say is the following:
However, the converse holds. In particular, we have the following: