So the Fundamental Theorem of Cyclic Groups states that
Every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic.
In symbolic logic, we can state this as
$A: G\text{ is cyclic}$
$P: \forall S\subset G \text{ and }S\text{ is a group }, S \text{ is cyclic}$
Then $A\rightarrow P$
I was wondering, if the opposite is true, that is $P\rightarrow A$. I think that it's not true based on this counterexample:
Let $G=\lbrace a,b,c,d,e\rbrace $. We can draw a Cayley table to describe this group:
$$\begin{array}{c|ccc} \text{ } & a & b & c & d & e \\ \hline a & a& b & c & d &e \\ b & b & a & e & c &d \\ c & c & d & a & e &b \\ d & d & e & b & a & c \\ e & e & c & d & b & a \end{array}$$
All of the groups as far as I can see are cyclic, because they are of the form $\lbrace a, x\rbrace, x\in \lbrace b,c,d,e\rbrace$.
However, the whole group is obviously not cyclic because of the phenomenon described above ($x^2=a$).
Is this a valid counterexample to formally disprove the proposition?
As stated, this is trivially true, as $G$ is a subgroup of itself. So if every subgroup of $G$ is cyclic, $G$ itself must be cyclic.
If you're asking whether (every proper subgroup of $G$ is cyclic) implies $G$ cyclic, consider $G = \mathbb{Z}/2 \times \mathbb{Z}/2$. This group isn't cyclic, but all its proper subgroups have order $1$ or $2$, so they are cyclic.
Also, your example must be incorrect, since any group of order $5$ must be cyclic (as $5$ is prime).