Distinct equivalence class question.

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Can you help me understand this. Please look at the diagram below. This is the graph

According to the book, the distinct equivalence classes are... The three distinct equivalence classes are $\{0, 3\}$, $\{1\}$, and $\{2\}$. These form a partition of $\{0, 1, 2, 3\}$.

Why aren't $\{0\}$ and $\{3\}$ part of the equivalence classes?

Thank you,

Regards, Sanone

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$\{0\}$ is not an equivalence class as such because there is an element of the original set which is not in $\{0\}$ but which is equivalent to an element of $\{0\}$.

More symbolically $\exists x,y$ with $x\not\in \{0\}, y\in \{0\}, x\sim y$ which contradicts $x \sim y \iff [x]=[y]$

Similarly $\{3\}$ is not an equivalence class as such, for the same reason