Suppose I have $n$ distinguishable balls and $N$ distinguishable boxes. A particular configuration of this 'system' is such that there are $k$ particles in a box, b, where $1\lt b \lt N$ (i.e. the boxes are numbered). The ordering of balls in a particular box does not matter. The number of ways of realising a particular configuration is:
$$n! \prod_{k=1}^{N}\frac{1}{k!}$$
I'm struggling to show that the above is true. My current thoughts (though they are wrong) are:
ways of producing particular configuration =
(ways of choosing $k$ balls from $n$ balls) x (ways of choosing 1 box from $N$ boxes) x
(ways of choosing $n-k$ balls from $n$ balls) x (ways of choosing $N-1$ boxes from $N$ boxes) =
$$nC_k \times NC_1 \times nC_{n-k} \times NC_{N-1} $$
Would anyone be willing to help me figure this out?
I was asked: The statement is not clear to me. Isn't your description of a valid configuration equivalent of saying : "put n balls in N boxes such that (at least) one box has exactly k balls" ? - Yes, this is what I mean.
I am going to assume that there are $n_k$ balls in box $k$ for each $k$ in $\{1,2,\ldots,N\}$. So $\displaystyle n=\sum_{k=1}^N n_k$.
So you can choose $n_1$ balls to put in box $1$ in $\displaystyle { n\, \choose n_1}=\dfrac{n!}{n_1!(n-n_1)!}$ ways. Once you have done that, you can choose $n_2$ of the remaining balls to put in box $2$ in $\displaystyle { n-n_1 \choose n_2}=\dfrac{(n-n_1)!}{n_2!(n-n_1-n_2)!}$ ways. And so on.
That makes the total number of ways of getting the $(n_1,n_2,\ldots,n_N)$ distribution:
$$\displaystyle \dfrac{n!}{n_1!{(n-n_1)!}} \times \dfrac{(n-n_1)!}{n_2!(n-n_1-n_2)!} \times \cdots \times \dfrac{(n-n_1-\cdots- n_{N-1})!}{n_N!(n-n_1-\cdots- n_{N-1}-n_N)!}$$ which allows you to cancel most of the numerator and almost half the denominator to give $\displaystyle \dfrac{n!}{n_1!\, n_2!\,\cdots \,n_N! \,0!} = n! \prod_{k=1}^{N} \dfrac{1}{n_k!} $ as I think you intended. This is called the multinomial coefficient.