Let's take a random prime $p$. For the sake of the argument let's say $\log(p)\approx 1000$. Let's suppose all numbers between $p$ and $p+1000^2$ are composites. What is the approximate probability that one of these numbers is product of two primes of exactly $217$ digits? ($217=\lfloor(\log_{10} p)/2\rfloor$
To simplify the answer, the probability can be given in terms of the prime counting function and its inverse, or any other number theoretic function which has a reasonably good approximation in terms of computing asymptotic probabilities.
Please note that my question is not about the behavior as $p$ tends to infinity. I already know the answer to that.
Edit: The assumption that all numbers between $p$ and $p+1000^2$ are composite seems to be false if $\log p \approx 1000$; this was stipulated in one the answers and dismissed as irreverent. The answers and the question should be taken in that light.
First of all, for all practical purposes your stipulation about a lack of primes above $p$ Just Doesn't Matter here — but note that it's actually very unlikely that none of them are; one would expect the 'next' prime to be on the order of $p+1000$, Cramer's conjecture says that the largest gap less than $p$ is of size proportional to $(\ln p)^2$, and a provisional gap of size roughly $1000^2$ is known between two provisional primes, but those numbers are of more than 40k digits.
The odds that a number $q$ of size $\approx\sqrt{p}\approx e^{500}$ is prime are roughly $\frac1{500}=.002$; this means that the odds a number of twice that size is a product of two primes of that size is roughly $\frac12(.002)^2 = 2\times 10^{-6}$ (with the factor of one-half because order of the two primes doesn't matter) and the odds that such a number isn't a product of two suitably-sized primes are roughly $1-(2\times 10^{-6})$. Now, these probabilities aren't all independent (since e.g. small factors on one number preclude the same small factors on 'nearby' numbers), but it's a very common number-theoretic assumption to presume that they're effectively so. Since we're looking at $10^6$ numbers, this means that the odds of not hitting such a number are roughly $\left(1-\frac{2}{N}\right)^N$, where $N=10^6$. But this should be a familiar-looking form from the exponential limit; this probability is very close to $e^{-2}\approx .135$. In other words, the odds of hitting a product of two appropriately-sized primes in the interval are roughly $86.5\%$.
Note that this is a relatively loose estimate; in particular, effects from the size of the intervals (you're ostensibly asking for primes of exactly 217 digits, not primes 'near $e^{500}$')should come into play. But for back-of-the-envelope purposes, this kind of calculation (done perhaps a bit more carefully than I have here!) — and in particular the 'local probability' and exponential estimate aspects of it — is the simplest way to approach a problem of this sort.