My teacher said, about testing significance of coefficient, that the Wald test has an inverse normal distribution, that is to verify the null hypothesis that the coefficient $\beta_j=0 $ vs the alternative hypothesis $ \beta_j \ne 0$ we can use the Wald statistic:
$$\dfrac{\bar{\beta_j}}{\bar{SE(\bar{\beta_j})}} \sim AN(0,1)$$
but i can't understand why everywhere on the web says that it has only Normal distribution. Are they equivalent?