Suppose we have a distribution $F \in \mathcal{D}'(\mathbb{R})$ and we know that for every $\phi \in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R})$ with $\text{supp}\phi \subseteq \text{supp}F$, we have $$ (F, \phi) = 0 .$$ Does this imply that $(F, \phi) = 0 $ for all test functions $\phi \in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R})$?
If we have a test function with support which intersects with supp$F$ and also (supp$F)^{c}$ then I am not sure how to show it in that case. My first idea would have been to split $\phi$ up into two parts, i.e. $\phi = \phi \mathbf{1}_{suppF} + \phi \mathbf{1}_{(suppF)^{c}}$ , but then the two parts would not necessarily be test functions anymore so that doesn't work I think
Let $F(\phi)=\phi(0)$, [the delta disribution]. Then $supp (F)=\{0\}$. If $\phi \in \mathcal D(\mathbb R)$ and $supp (\phi) \subseteq \{0\}$ then $\phi \equiv 0$ (by continuity) so $F(\phi)=0$. On the other hand there exist functions $\psi \in D(\mathbb R)$ with $F(\psi)=\psi (0) \neq 0$.