Let:
- $p_n$ be the $n$th prime.
- $p\#$ be the primorial for $p$.
- $f_n(x) = \dfrac{p_n\#}{x} - x$
Does it always follow that for $n \ge 2$, there exists an integer $w$ where $1 < f_n(w) < (p_n)^2$ and $w | p_n\#$
Examples:
- For $n=2$, $f_2(1) = \dfrac{6}{1} - 1 = 5 < 3^2 = 9$
- For $n=3$, $f_3(2) = \dfrac{30}{2} - 2 = 13 < 5^2 = 25$
- For $n=4$, $f_4(5) = \dfrac{210}{5} - 5 = 37 < 7^2 = 49$
- For $n=5$, $f_5(35) = \dfrac{2310}{35} - 35 = 31 < 11^2 = 121$
- For $n=6$, $f_6(165) = \dfrac{30,030}{165} - 165 = 17 < 13^2 = 169$
- For $n=7$, $f_7(663) = \dfrac{510,510}{663} - 663 = 107 < 17^2 = 289$
- For $n=8$, $f_8(3094) = \dfrac{9,699,690}{3094} - 3094 = 41 < 19^2 = 361$
Here's what I know:
- Any $w$ will need to be less than $\sqrt{p_n\#}$
- There are $2^n$ divisors for $p_n\#$.
- For larger $n$, there are at least $ap_n$ primes between $p_n$ and $(p_n)^2$ with $a \ge 1$ and $a$ increasing for larger $n$ based on Bertrand's Postulate.
Edit:
I am interested in $w$ where it is divisor. My previous question was unclear so I have made an update.
The conjecture is false. The best that can be done for the next two primes beyond $f_9$ is $f_{10}(79534)=1811>29^2$ and $f_{11}(447051)=1579>31^2$