Simple question, the way I understand the theorems, the result is that the completeness and correctness theorems apply to any set.
However, consider the set of formulas:
$\phi, \neg \phi$
Or any other inconsistent set. Then it is commonly known that any formula can be derived from the set. However, it doesn't seem like any formula would be the logical consequence of the above set, since the formulas are not even true in any interpretation. So is any formula in fact the logical consequence of the above set?
YES
The definition of logical consequence is :
Thus, the "logical form" of the definition is :
If $\Gamma$ is inconsistent, then $\text { Satisfy }(\Gamma, I)$ is false for every $I$; thus, the conditional: if $\text { Satisfy }(\Gamma, I)$, then $\text { Satisfy }(\varphi, I)$, is vacuously true for every $I$.
And this, in turn, holds for a formula $\varphi$ whatever.
How completeness applies to this case ?
If $\Gamma = \{ \phi, \lnot \phi \}$ we can apply the rules of the calculus to derive a formula $\psi$ whatever.
With e.g. Natural Deduction, we have :
1) $\phi$ --- premise
2) $\lnot \phi$ --- premise
3) $\bot$ --- from 1) and 2) by $\lnot$-E
How correctness applies to this case ?
Correctness (or soundness) means that the rules applied to (a set of) true premises produce a true conclusion.
But in an inconsistent set of premises not all formulas are true; thus, the definition does not licence us to assert that in this case the conclusion must be true.