Do every infinite locally compact Hausdorff group has infinitely many closed subgroup? I know that every locally compact compactly generated abelian group is topologically isomorphic to $\Bbb R^n\times \Bbb Z^m\times$ compact abelian group. If $G$ is an infinite real Lie group than $G$ has infinitely many closed groups but in general, I don't know.
2026-03-25 11:20:08.1774437608
Do every infinite locally compact Hausdorff group has infinitely many closed subgroup?
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Yes (no classification needed).
(a) first case: $G$ has a closed subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbf{Z}$: then OK (since $\mathbf{Z}$ has infinitely many subgroups).
(b) second case: $G$ has an element $g$ of infinite order (but no closed subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbf{Z}$). Then the closure $K$ of $\langle g\rangle$ is an infinite compact subgroup. Its Pontryagin dual is an infinite discrete abelian group, so has infinitely many subgroups by the discrete case, and again by Pontryagin duality it follows that $G$ has $K$ has infinitely many closed subgroups.
(c) if neither (a) nor (b) applies, then every element has finite order, so $G$ is covered by finite subgroups. Hence $G$ has infinitely many finite (hence closed) subgroups.
Let me provide a second way, a bit more self-contained.
Indeed, if we are not in the setting of (c) above, then some cyclic subgroup has an infinite closure and hence we can suppose that $G$ is abelian. Then using the assumption, there is a finite saturated chain of closed normal subgroups. Hence it is enough to prove the following.
Indeed, $G$ is clearly abelian. Also it is either connected or totally disconnected (since the connected component of $0$ is a closed subgroup). We conclude separately.
if $G$ is totally disconnected, Dantzig's theorem says that $0$ has a system of neighborhoods consisting of open subgroups. Hence by the assumption, $G$ is discrete and this case is standard. Dantzig' theorem is very easy modulo proving that every Hausdorff locally compact space has at lease one nonempty compact clopen subset.
if $G$ is connected, use Pontryagin duality only in the way that $G\neq 0$ implies the existence of a nontrivial homomorphism $f$ to the circle group $\mathbf{R}/\mathbf{Z}$. By connectedness, $f$ is surjective. So $f^{-1}((\frac12\mathbf{Z})/\mathbf{Z})$ is a nonzero proper subgroup, contradiction.