If {$e_i$} is the generating set of a free R-module M, and there is no unity in R, how does, say $e_1$ exist in M anyway?
Context Edit (by jgon): The original author appears to have abandoned the question, as there are no new comment replies, and the question is now closed and has a delete vote, but I think this is a fairly worthwhile question to address and keep on the site, so I wanted to explain why I think this is so.
When $R$ is a ring with unity, we have the well known notion of free $R$-modules, which have many definitions. Per the definition suggested by the OP in the comments below, they are $R$ modules $M$ equipped with a basis $\{e_i\}$ such that every element $m$ of $M$ has a unique expression $$m = \sum_i a_i(m)e_i,$$ for coefficients $a_i(m)\in R$, only finitely many of which are nonzero.
Now if we thought about how to adapt this definition to define a free $R$-module over a ring $R$ which doesn't have unity, we run into problems immediately. For example, if we pick a basis $\{e_i\}$, it's not even clear that we can express any member of this basis, like $e_1$, in terms of the basis, since we can't write $e_1=1\cdot e_1$ any longer. Thus we'd like to know how to generalize and make sense of free modules in the context of not necessarily unital rings.
Let me start by saying I am sorry this answer is not definitive. I hope, though, to justify the content of the question and boost interest by pointing out the underlying problems.
In your comment you elaborated that you want the basis-definition for the definition of a free module.
You already recognized one deficiency: apparently $e_i\in \sum e_jR$, but its representation is no longer obvious (it used to be the linear combination $e_i\cdot 1$.)
That is a valid concern. It calls into question what a linear combination out to be.
Unfortunate victims of that definition
I can't immediately say that I know there are (nonzero) rngs which have no nonzero free modules of that sort, but what I can say is that things we'd want to be free modules don't work with this definition. Specifically I'm thinking of the module $R^n$.
If $R$ is a nonzero ring such that $R^2=\{0\}$, for example, then $R^n$ cannot have an $R$ basis like the one you describe above. Every product between something in $R^n$ and something in $R$ is zero, so there is no hope of generating $R^n$ at all that way.
A likely alternative
Perhaps, like in the definition of a principle ideal of a ring without identity, it is necessary to include $\mathbb Z$ multiples as well. A revised definition might be something like:
I have never seen this proposed in writing as a solution to the issue of "what do free modules look like for rings without identity" but it would be one candidate to check out. Perhaps it has its own flaws.
Free modules are at least defined
As for the title question: in any category, free objects are at least defined in any category, and the category of modules over a rng is just another category. In any category of modules the zero module is going to be a free module on an empty basis, so the question is really whether or not nonzero free modules exist for rngs.