Well I was sure that saying "$A^3$" (where $A$ is an $n\times n$ matrix) is nonsense. Sure one could do $(A\cdot A) A$ But that contains different operators etc. So what did my prof mean by the following statement:
show that $A^{25}\mathbf{x} = \mathbf{0}$ has only the trivial solution? (We're also given the determinant of A).
I know the proof will probably end with stating: "This means that $A^{25}$ is invertible, so $A^{25}\mathbf{x} = \mathbf{0}$ has only the trivial solution. And well I could state that $\det(A^{25}) = 5^{25} \neq 0$.
But then again: I really wonder what the "to the power of" operator means? Or did my prof make a mistake here?
If you want a formal definition of matrix exponentiation for non-negative integer values, just define $A^n = A^{n-1}\cdot A$ and $A^0 = I$. Since matrix multiplication is associative, we won't have any ambiguity there.
Edit: As Tobias Kildetoft points out below, it might be wiser to define the base case as $A^1=A$ instead of $A^0=I$, so as to not have to worry about how $\det(A^n)=\det(A)^n$ for $\det(A)=0$ would imply $0^0=1$. Which isn't false, depending on how we want to define it, but is something we might not want to worry about for the purposes of defining matrix powers.