Let $A$ be a matrix and suppose that
$$z^T Az$$
is known for all $z \in \mathbb{R}^d$. Is $A$ uniquely determined by all these values?
I needed this in the case that $A$ is symmetric, which I managed to prove. But I'm wondering about the general case. I suspect this to be false. Maybe a $2\times 2$-counterexample already exists.
No. Consider what happens if you transpose:
\begin{equation*} z^T A z = z^T A^T z \end{equation*}