Does $(a + bi)^3 = (x+yi)^3 \implies a + bi = x + yi$, where $a,b,x,y \in \mathbb{R}?$
Please provide a proof/counterexample. I've tried brute force and ended up with:
$$(a - x)(a^2 + ax + x^2) + 3(-ab^2 + xy^2) = 0$$
$$(y - b)(y^2 + by + b^2) + 3(a^2b - x^2y) = 0$$
If $z^3=w^3$, then $$\left(\frac{z}{w}\right)^3=1\\\left(\frac{z}{w}\right)^3=e^{2\pi ki}\\z=we^{\frac{2\pi i k}{3}}$$ That is, $z,w$ differ by a unit. In particular, there are three possibilities: